Apologetics: Genesis 1-10

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Is it Biblical to believe in both creation and evolution?
Are the six days of creation presented in Genesis 1 literal days or "ages"?
Why is it important that we treat Genesis as literal history?
Aren't the first and second chapters of Genesis contradictory?
Isn't the name "Adam" merely a symbolic name for a race of early man?
The talking serpent in chapter 3: surely there wasn't actually a talking snake?
Where do extinct creatures such as dinosaurs fit into the Genesis story?
Why is it that the Bible reports all of Noah's ancestors as living into the 900s of years?
Couldn't the flood have been local instead of global?
Wouldn't it have been impossible to bring some of the larger animals onto the ark?
Regarding the flood, where did all the water come from? Where did it go?
Who are the "sons of God" told of in the first part of Genesis 6?
Who was Cain's wife? Where did she come from?

Is it Biblical to believe in both creation and evolution?


Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent Text: Genesis 1:1

The answer to this question is a firm, resounding NO. The theories of creation and evolution in their modern form are contradictory in many ways. While these differences are numerous, the kinds of differences may be summarized into three categories:

All of the reasons listed have been divided into their respective categories.

Chronological differences

The order of creation as presented in Genesis 1 follows this chronology: The order of theories of human origin (modern evolution and The Big Bang) go something like this:

Examine these two chronologies to see the vast inconsistencies between them. Here are a few of the most significant:

Philosophical differences

Evolution teaches that life as we know it came about by mere chance alone. Life has no real significance because it originated from random chemical reactions in the sea. According to evolution, we have random mutations to thank for our intellectual and physical condition.

The implications of creation, however, impute a purpose to the existence of human life. Genesis teaches that God created mankind and gave him dominion over the earth, asking only for man's dependence on Him.

NOTE: The above argument is mute with regard to the positions of theistic evolution and progressive creation, as those ideas include the administration of God throughout the process. However, it is a point worthy of consideration.

Evolution emphasizes the struggle for life and "survival of the fittest". Without removal of those with inferior traits, it teaches, there can be no improvement, no natural selection, no evolution, no higher forms of life. It is mandatory, if one follows evolutionary theory, to believe that life is in many ways the fruition of death.

Genesis clearly teaches that before the fall of Adam and Eve into sin, there was no death at all. According to Genesis 1:29-30, people and all animals were to eat only plants for food, eliminating the possibility of predation by man or beast. (This was changed shortly after the flood.) Much like the clothing and health of the Israelites were supernaturally preserved from decay in the wilderness (Deuteronomy 8:4), it is suggested that neither man nor beast died from old age. Genesis completely denies the philosophy that death and the struggle to survive result in better life. Genesis denies Darwinism.

Evolutionary theory is (ultimately) based on the assumption that all events conform to the laws of nature perfectly. The theory, along with every other theory you will find in your science textbook, is based on the central axiom of science, as discussed in The Supernatural Explained. Genesis teaches that God created the heavens, the earth, and all life in quite a supernatural manner, defying all notions of conformity to the laws of nature. This is quite a pill to swallow for someone who refuses to accept the possibility of the supernatural. We see then that Genesis defies the philosophy of modern science.

Differences in Perspective

The first difference in perspective has to do with the point of view from which the two human origin accounts are given. As for Genesis, it should be obvious that the only way people could know what to write about the part of the story occurring before man's formation would be if God (the only one there to see it all) had told someone what had happened. So then we see (by inference) that Genesis is a story related by an eyewitness: God Himself. Evolution, on the other hand, does not claim or imply that it is based on eyewitness accounts. Rather, what we call the modern theory of evolution is the summation of educated guesses that scientists have made aimed at incorporating observed biological processes with the beginnings of life. Evolution is the product of detective work.

The second difference in perspective deals with the esteem of the earliest people by the two theories. Evolution states that people started out grunting, figuring out how fire works, hunting and gathering food, etc. and rose through natural selection to the pinnacle of civilization we now enjoy. Creation, on the other hand, relates the following things about the first people:

Creation does not view man as rising from "neanderthal" status toward civility as evolution does. Indeed, the "hunter-gatherer" cultures are said to have begun with a man named Jabal (Gen. 4:20), a great great great great grandson of Cain. (Jabal is also told to have begun the practice of keeping cattle and other stock for a source of food). So according to Genesis, the hunter-gatherers came after the farmers and shepherds in human history. Is this not completely at odds with the anthropological and evolutionary theories of today?

NOTE: It is not expressly said that either Adam or his near descendants knew how to read and/or write, but the notion is not foreign to the presentation of the first people in Genesis. Taking into account the superb craftsmanship of Cain's people (Gen. 4:19-22) and the fact that the fifth chapter of Genesis is a "book" (KJV) or a written record that had been passed down to the author of Genesis, it is suggested (or at least is entirely possible) that the first people did possess the use of written language as well as spoken language.

Conclusion

We have seen that vast differences in chronology, philosophy, and perspective (including estimation of the civility of early peoples) exist between the histories of human origin as told by Genesis and the modern theory of evolution. Let it therefore be concluded that:

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Are the six days of creation presented in Genesis 1 literal days or "ages"?

Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent Text #1: Genesis 1:5

Pertinent text #2: Exodus 20:8-11

I shall answer this question on several fronts; that is, with respect to the language used, the problem of the sun, out-of-context uses of other scriptures, and the fact that creation is finished.

The Hebrew Word "Yome"

Many people believe that the Hebrew word translated 'day' (as in the first day of creation) allows for a figurative interpretation; they base this idea on the fact that the first three days of creation passed without the prescence of the sun. Therefore, we will first examine the definition of the Hebrew word, pronounced "yome". It is used several different ways throughout the Old Testament, and has the following allowable definitions:

The word "yome" is often said to represent "an indefinite period of time"; this is almost a proper use of the word. The problem with this is that the days of Genesis were definite periods of time, marked by "evening and morning". If the word "yome" has any contextual restrictions of any kind, then such a figurative interpretation is never allowable.

I quote Ham, "Without exception, in the Hebrew Old Testament the word 'yom' never means 'period' (i.e., it is never used to refer to a definite long period of time with specific beginning and end points). The word which means a long period of time in Hebrew is 'olam.' Furthermore, it is important to note that even when the word 'yom' is used in the indefinite sense, it is clearly indicated by the context that the literal meaning of the word 'day' is not intended." (p. 157)

However, even if the word "yome" were to be interpreted in terms of a general period of time defined solely by context, a literal meaning emerges because the context of day is "evening and morning". The words denote, quite literally, the fall and rise of the sun, or at the very least an alternation between light and darkness. The only way the phrase "evening and morning" could be interpreted as figurative is if they are context-dependent. However, this is possible only if the word "day" is taken literally, for if both are deemed context-dependent then the terms become circularly defined.

Similarly, to interpret "evening and morning" as figurative (and, thus, dependent on context for their meaning) implies that the context, the word "yome", is taken literally, for the word has no context other than "evening and morning". To consider both as context-dependent and figurative is to define them circularly and sacrifice any meaning, even that desired.

And so, even though the sun was created on the fourth day, it is impossible to interpret the days as figurative based on language because the word that would be expected to be written here is "olam" and not "yome" if a figurative meaning were the truth of the matter.

The Ten Commandments are certainly literal in nature, as they were part of the law of the ancient Jewish government. The second of those ten commandments quoted above clearly states that every seventh day is to be a day of rest. The word for "day" used here is, as would be expected, "yome" and not "olam", as is used in the part following: "In six days the LORD made heaven and earth...." And, remember, the Ten Commandments are recorded to have been "written with the finger of God" (Exodus 31:18). So then, it is suggested that just as the law of the sabbath day is literal, so are the creation days of Genesis.

After all, the six days of Creation followed by the seventh day of rest are the basis of the second commandment. If God's creation days are figurative, then does this not allow us the liberty to work for six figurative days (representing the amount of time it takes us to tire of work) and then rest for one period of time (until we regain our energy)? This is not what God intended; thus concludes my arguments for literal days based on language.

Abscence of the Sun

At one time, I held the days of Genesis to be figurative based on the idea that a day can only be figurative if there is no sun. (The sun was created on day four.) Ham does offer a viable solution to this puzzle.

First, one must realize that light was created on the first day, and was separated from darkness. Second, one must realize that day one is marked in the scriptures as the "evening and morning", suggesting that alternating periods of light and darkness are generated by a rotating earth. (p. 158) This allows for a literal interpretation of the day, removing a conflict of linguistic evidence. Also, every other part of the first chapter of Genesis is presented as literal (earth itself, heaven, sun, moon, stars, animals, humans), making it much more difficult and extraneous to claim that the length of the days is not literal.

Verses Out of Context

It is a common argument that since II Peter 3:8 says "that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day" (KJV), the days of creation must be figurative. Psalm 90:4 likewise tells us, "For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night."

Ham points out that these two verses emphasize the teaching that God is outside the domain of time, that time is meaningless to him. He points out that Peter is talking about the second coming of the Christ in the verse in question; neither directly refers to the creation days.

Ham concludes his discussion of II Peter 3:8 with this witty remark: "However, the point of II Peter 3:8 is that God is not limited by time, whereas evolution requires time (a very great deal of it!)." And after all, why else would one want to believe in figurative creation days except as an excuse to believe that evolution occurred on the earth while not rejecting the scriptures altogether?

God rested

If a day of creation was in reality a great many earth years, then it only makes sense to treat the seventh day (the day God rested) as a great deal of time as well. This presents several inconsistencies with other parts of the Holy Scriptures, two of which are pointed out by Ham.

Genesis 2:2 informs us that God "rested". Genesis 2:2 does not tell us that "God resteth on this the seventh day" as one would expect if the seventh day were a great, indefinite period of time. Also, we are told in Genesis 5:5 that "all the days that Adam lived were nine hundred and thirty years, and he died." (KJV) Ham points out that Adam was created on the sixth day of creation. If the sixth and seventh days (along with the rest of them) were indefinite and great in length, then Adam's nine hundred and thirty years (using the same definition and grammatical structure for 'years' used to describe the ages of Noah, Abraham, Jacob, and Joseph) would lose the meaning that is suggested.

The third inconsistency of days and ages concerning the day of rest is found in the teachings of Jesus in John 5:17: "My Father worketh hitherto, and I work." If God rested on the seventh day, and the seventh day continues to the present, the statement that Jesus made would be a complete lie; and it is not consistent with the character of Jesus that he would lie.

Let it then be concluded that the six (or seven if you like) days of Creation may only be treated as literal in the interest of intellectual integrity.

Sources consulted:

Strong, James, LL.D., S.T.D. The New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible. Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1990.

Ham, Ken. The Lie: Evolution. Colorado Springs: Master Books, 1987.

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Why is it important that we treat Genesis as literal history?

Response by: Will Berry

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 1:1

Pertinent text #2: Genesis 3:21

Pertinent text #3: Mark 10:2-9

Pertinent text #4: I Timothy 2:12-14

(Before I even begin, let me say that pertinent text #4 does not suggest that women are inferior to men. I will not discuss the reasons here; that is a topic irrelevant to the subject at hand. I also wish to say that this response is written especially for those who profess to be Christians.)

There are lots of reasons why we would do well to treat the first chapters of Genesis as a literally true historical document. Most of those reasons lie in convenience in interpreting scripture, and are not suitable for a persuasive argument. However, a handfull of reasons exist which fall out of the need for consistency in belief and intellectual integrity, and so I will discuss them first.

I conversed once with a liberal theologian (a theologian whose beliefs about God and Jesus lie more in the meaning behind what is written in the Bible more than the meaning in what is written), and asked him whether he believed that the first chapter of Genesis was literal or figurative. He said that it was figurative. I then asked him whether he believed the second chapter of Genesis was literal or figurative. His reply: "I am consistent in my thinking such that I must believe the second chapter is figurative."

Even the most liberal theologians will probably say that the first verse of the first chapter of Genesis is literal. This is perfectly reasonable; how could one not? However, if a liberal theologian were then asked whether they believed the second verse of the first chapter of Genesis is literal ("And the earth was without form and void..."), opinions would diverge.

It would seem that in order to be consistent, one must either also believe that the second verse of the first chapter of Genesis is literal, or reject the idea that the first verse is literal. (The two sentences are joined with a conjuntion, "and", implying the necessity of such consistency. Indeed, all the way through the tenth verse of chapter 2, there are only five verses that do not begin with that conjunction, implying a great need for consistency in this way.) Rejecting the idea that God literally created the heaven and the earth is something that most believers are not willing to do.

I asked this same theologian at another time during our conversation about Jesus' statement in the fourth quoted text above. He agreed with me that Jesus thought of Genesis 2:24 (which is what Jesus quoted in His answer to the Pharisees) as literal. I did not think to call his attention to the inconsistency in his thinking, but I wish to call the reader's attention to it. In order to be consistent, wouldn't Jesus have to regard the remainder of the second chapter of Genesis as literal? And likewise, provided that it is understood and accepted that the first and second chapters of Genesis are not contradictory (an issue not discussed here), wouldn't Jesus have to regard the first chapter of Genesis as literal as well? The same argument applies to the third and fourth chapters, due to the conjunctions between the verses of all of these chapters.

The fact that the days of creation are literal implies that the remainder of Genesis is literal. After all, what possible reason for interpreting the six days of creation as figurative would one have except as an excuse for believing in creation and evolution at the same time; and what reason would one possibly have for interpreting Genesis as anything but literal history except as an excuse to believe in it and another (probably evolution-based) system of beliefs about human origins at the same time?

Finally, Paul established as a church doctrine that women were not to be placed in a place of significant authority over men (including the position of teacher). For his reasoning behind this literal establishment in the church to be based on a figurative creation account is completely farcical. And so, as long as the reader accepts that Paul's epistles were written under divine inspiration, one must accept that the account of the fall of Adam and Eve was quite literal (and, following from the above argument, that the rest of the first chapters of Genesis are literal).

These are my best persuasive reasons for believing that the entirety of Genesis is a literal, historical document. Now I shall discuss the issues which are made much easier to deal with using a literal interpretation of Genesis.

In reference to the second quoted text above: this is the only Biblical basis for clothing there is. Apart from a literal acceptance that God clothed Adam and Eve, there is no real reason for us humans to wear clothing. With a figurative interpretation of Genesis, there is no basis for insisting that people wear clothes except in the consequential sense.

The institution of marriage breaks down with a figurative interpretation of Genesis. Every other Biblical discussion of marriage except for the Song of Solomon is directly founded on the second and third chapters of Genesis. And so, without a literal treatment of Genesis, the teachings about divorce by Jesus and the prophet Malachi and the forbiddance of homosexuality in the law remains completely unfounded and unreasonable.

My final "good reason to interpret Genesis literally" is quite complicated. I have written a theology article on the subject, entitled Good and Evil. It discusses the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil and its relationship to the moral and spiritual state of mankind. Without a literal interpretation of Genesis, none of the ideas discussed in this article has any foundation and is rendered worthless.

And so hopefully now the reader understands both why it is so important to interpret Genesis literally and why it is reasonable to do so.

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Aren't the first and second chapters of Genesis contradictory?

Response by: Will Berry

This is a big question, and I hesitated responding to it without building a more extensive knowledge of what scholars on both sides of this debate have said. However, I have decided to forego the dissertation and simply display the understanding I have, and my words in response to my opposition.

I do not believe that the first and second chapters of Genesis are contradictory. They are different, as anyone can tell by reading them, but they are complimentary, not contradictory. Let me outline the common positions of those who purport contradiction and respond to those positions.

Some say the first two chapters are contradictory because they present two irreconcilably different timelines of the creation act. According to them, the first chapter says that man was the last thing to be created, and the second chapter says that the animals were the last things to be created. I find this particular argument to be the most problematic. However, I do not believe that contradiction is evident.

In the second chapter, we are told this about the relationship of man to the animals:

If we assume that all events in the second chapter are given in chronological order, then it follows that:

  1. God created Adam, the first man, "from the dust of the ground" - Gen. 2:7
  2. God created all land and air creatures and had Adam name each one
  3. After all the creatures were named, God created a wife for Adam from a rib bone.

Assuming that all events in the second chapter are related in chronological order, we do have contradiction because the first chapter relates that air creatures were created a day before man and land creatures. However, I will point out to the reader that this assumption is not a very reliable one. According to McDowell and Stuart and their sources, there is no explicit Hebraic device to convey the pluperfect (past perfect) tense. Furthermore, McDowell and Stuart purport that the pluperfect tense best suits the creation of the animals as related by the second chapter (i.e. "God had formed", rather than "God formed", is most literally the meaning of the text).

Some people believe that the first and second chapters are contradictory because the first chapter teaches that man came after the plants, whereas the the second chapter tells of God creating man before creating plants. This is not the case, as is evident from reading the third and fourth verses of the second chapter:

As we can see in these verses, God created plants before plants grew. If plants had been created only a few days before man, it is reasonable to believe that most of them had not visibly grown by the time man came along. Furthermore, man began to "till the ground" after his creation (obviously), and thus certain plants would not grow (at least, not well) without his care. There is no contradiction with the plants.

Some say the first two chapters are contradictory because they portray God as having characteristics or aspects of personality that are irreconcilably different. In the first chapter, they say, God is a removed Creator who orchestrates an ordered emergence of the universe we know; in the second chapter, God is a hands-on, personal, Creator who seeks intimacy with mankind. I personally find no contradiction there. I believe it is entirely possible to be organized, authoritative, and ordered while at the same time being loving and having a heart towards others.

Some say that the weight of many differences between the first and second chapters altogether makes both creation accounts unreliable. For example, in the first chapter the Creator is referred to by the word "Elohim", whereas in the second chapter the compound description "YHWH-Elohim" or "Yahweh-Elohim" is exclusively used. It is believed by some that these differences imply that the two chapters were authored by different people, have nothing to do with each other, and thus they cannot both be reliable as literal truth. It should be noted that, as we saw earlier, describing God in different ways does not imply contradiction between the two descriptions. Otherwise stated, it does not mean that both cannot be true.

In summary, most arguments for contradiction between Genesis 1 and 2 either involve assumptions of chronology in chapter 2 where no chronology exists, or improperly assume that different tones, descriptions, and emphases imply different authors and illegitimacy of the literal corporate meaning of the two chapters.

Let it be concluded that the first two chapters of Genesis are neither contradictory nor necessarily mythical.

Sources consulted:
McDowell, Josh and Stewart, Don. Answers to Tough Questions Skeptics Ask About the Christian Faith. Wheaton, Illinois: Tyndale House Publishers, 1980. pp 205-241.

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Isn't the name "Adam" merely a symbolic name for a race of early man?

Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent Text #1: Genesis 2:18,21-23

Pertinent Text #2: Genesis 5:1-2

If we are to interpret Genesis with the premise that Adam was a race and not an individual, then all the events in Genesis that involve Adam would involve a race of people. This creates quite a puzzle in many ways, three of which are given below.

Assuming for the moment that Adam means a primitive race, it is a confusing thing to think about what the deep sleep might symbolize. Hibernation? Doubtful. I can't think of anyone that might follow the idea of a great species-wide cryosleep. The deep sleep of Adam is not consistent with the idea that Adam was a race.

The rib being made into a woman is also an issue. There is only one species of humans, yet Genesis says that the woman came out of the man (Adam). Biologists will be the first to agree that our species has never spawned off other species. With the "Adam = race" interpretation, the origin of Eve makes no sense whatsoever.

The third argument for Adam's singularity lies in the introduction to and nature of the fifth chapter of Genesis. Genesis 5:1 speaks of the chapter as being a book, written record, and history. In other words, it (and the rest of Genesis) is a document to be read literally. That means that the book of Genesis itself insists that we read it with the mindset that when it mentions a man, it means just that -- one man.

To illustrate, consider the text of the fifth chapter. It gives one man's lineage, down to Noah. Noah's lineage is given in chapter 10. His son Shem's lineage is given in chapter 11, all the way to Abram (who later became Abraham) and Lot. Abraham is certainly treated as one person, and is accepted as such everywhere. Why then would it be different for his great x 17 grandfather? (*) The answer is simple: it wouldn't be different. If it is accepted that Abraham was a person and not a race (and it is), it logically follows that Adam was a person and not a race.

If this final argument seems a little shaky to you, consider this one fact: the lifespans of Adam and all his descendents are written down. It would not make any sense at all to say that Adam the race lived 930 years, and Abraham his 17th-generation (singular) descendent lived 175 years (Gen 25:7), giving the ages of all in-between as well.

There are many more details of the early chapters of Genesis that suggest that treating Adam as a race is impossible. Let it then be concluded that Adam was a single person.

* -- When you see the word "begat" in an Old Testament genealogy, that does not necessarily mean that the subject and object of the verb are one generation apart. In Genesis, recordings of lineage usually include the ages of the people in the line. However, when ages are not included, there is no guarantee that the people mentioned are father and son. In fact, not even the words 'father' and 'son' necessarily denote this first-generation relationship. (See Exodus 3:6 and Luke 20:44)

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The talking serpent in chapter 3: surely there wasn't actually a talking snake?

Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent text: Genesis 3:1-5

What we read about here is not the record of a talking snake. The word 'serpent' here comes from a Hebrew word meaning "serpent" in the literal sense; however, the word is used all over the Old Testament as a symbol of an enchanter, sorceror, or evil charmer. It is the deceptive nature of the being that tempted Eve that is being described in Genesis 3:1-5, not the physical appearance.

There is a follow-up question that deserves mention here. That question is, "If it can be said that the serpent is a symbol of an enchanter, why must it be that everything else in Genesis is literal?" This question is asked under the assumption that the Hebrew word translated "serpent" is always used to describe a literal snake unless explicitly said to have another meaning.

This is not the case in the Hebrew language any more than it is the case with the word "snake" in English. It is a perfectly literal thing to say that some person (usually a man) is a snake in English, because the word "snake" can mean a person having no scruples, someone who takes advantage of people in an uncaring manner. This is a perfectly literal meaning of the word "snake" in modern English. Likewise, a perfectly literal meaning of the word "serpent" in Hebrew is "an enchanter or deceiver". Perhaps an alternate translation for the Hebrew would be "incubus".

So we see then that the word "serpent" in the KJV means "enchanter", and that a literal meaning is not violated.

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Where do extinct creatures such as dinosaurs fit into the Genesis story?

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 1:7

Pertinent text #2: Genesis 1:24-30 (parts)

Pertinent text #3: Genesis 2:5-6

Pertinent text #4: Genesis 2:19

Pertinent text #5: Genesis 6:17

Pertinent text #6: Genesis 7:15-16

Pertinent text #7: Genesis 9:2-3

Notice first of all that dinosaurs are not mentioned in Genesis (though many say that the book of Job contains descriptions of prehistoric creatures--see Job 40:15-24 and all of Job 41). This should not be considered a problem; there are too many creatures on earth to list them all (the kangaroo and the elephant were left out too).

So just because dinosaurs were not explicitly mentioned in the scriptures (perhaps they, like many other, smaller reptiles with feet, were classified as 'dragons') does not mean that the dinosaurs are presented in the Bible as never having existed. Indeed, the only animals mentioned specifically at all before the tenth chapter of Genesis were the sheep, the raven, and the dove. So whether or not dinosaurs are mentioned is not an issue.

It would seem, then, that the question at hand is whether or not Adam and the early people had encounters with dinosaurs, and if so, whether any "thunder lizards" were brought aboard the ark. Also, if dinosaurs were found aboard the ark, why aren't they still around today, and how did Noah and his people manage to get them on board without getting killed?

In the 4th text quoted above, it is evident that Adam gave a name to every single basic kind of land vertebrate (probably a good synonym for 'beast'); this would need to include the dinosaurs. So Adam came into contact with them. I am confident of this because of the word "every" which is in bold and italics above. By substitution, God brought at least one of every kind of land vertebrate to Adam, and Adam gave that kind of animal a name. (It probably should be concluded from this wording that every single animal was given a name, and not just every kind of animal; that's another topic.)

Yes, I am suggesting that man and dinosaur co-existed. Indeed, I am even suggesting that Tyrannosaurus Rex (you know, the one with the six-inch canine teeth?) was originally a vegetarian! I back myself up with the second quoted text above. Indeed, perhaps this claim would be a worthy addition to my answer to "Is it Biblical to believe in both creation and evolution?". The reason this is such a radical claim for most people is a result of the adamant claim that the dinosaurs are extremely old, and I will not discuss the dating methods here (that is yet another topic). I simply state confidently that this is the Biblical position on the dinosaurs.

The dinosaurs, like all animals and man, were originally vegetarian (Gen. 1:30: "every green herb for food"). Did this change before the flood? Perhaps. We are told in Genesis 6:12 that "all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth". Part of that way was vegetarianism; I cannot argue against the idea that some of the dinosaurs became predatory animals before the flood. I can only mention that there are vegetarian animals today, removing the necessity of such an idea. Furthermore, while it is certainly possible that some dinosaurs became carnivorous before the flood, I find it unlikely that all species of dinosaur would do so.

Also, man was able to amply deal with such foes if foes they were. They had metal weapons, in the making of which Tubalcain gained fame (Genesis 4:22). So there was no real possibility of people being hunted to extinction if the dinosaurs had turned carnivorous before the flood, violating "God's way".

Did the dinosaurs survive until the flood? Or were they killed off by early man? There is no definitive answer to this question in my opinion. But I wish to give an educated guess. Consider the sixth quoted text above. We are told that two pairs "of all flesh" entered into the ark. Certainly this means that two of every species of insect, bird, and land vertebrate that were still around boarded the ark. I suspect that even if some species had been killed off by the time of the flood, not all of them had. So I allow the large possibility of dinosaurs being carried onto the ark, and am confident that at least one basic kind of dinosaur did survive that long.

But what about velociraptor? Anyone who has read Jurassic Park or seen the movie would probably agree that there were some dinosaurs capable of being real killing machines. How could Noah have managed to get this dread animal on board the ark if they had not all been killed off? My answer to that is that velociraptor had not taken to carnivorous tendencies at that time. I do not risk the claim that he had been killed off to extinction by man already due to the fact that velociraptor fossils (as well as other meat-eating dinosaur fossils) might be found anywhere in the future. Remember, it was only after the flood that God ordained that flesh be eaten as food. (seventh text quoted above). Why not the same for the dinosaurs?

So then, what about after the flood? Why aren't they still around? This is where the vast differences between the creation and evolution models enter into the picture again, as mentioned in the first and third quoted texts above. In my response to the question, "Why is it that the Bible reports all of Noah's ancestors as living into the 900s of years?", various things about the firmament are discussed, including some details about ultraviolet radiation and the earth's magnetic field.

There are other factors specified in the creation model that produce a vastly different climate before the flood than after. Such factors are the abscence of rain (dictated in Genesis 2:5-6), an air pressure of three times that of today at sea level, an oxygen concentration doubling that of today, and (I'm not sure about this last one) a sea with a much lower salinity level.

If life had existed in such climates for so long, it is only natural to expect high numbers of extinctions when the climate was drastically changed by the flood, the collapse of the firmament, the alteration of the water cycle, etc. to approximately what it is today. And on top of that, it was shortly after the flood that man was ordained (not merely allowed) to eat meat. (see the seventh quoted text above). So it would be expected after that time that whatever animals which are today carnivorous had not taken to that tendency already would assume that role in the "new world", and more extinctions would result.

So I conclude that either the dinosaurs were killed off by early man before the flood (highly unlikely to apply to all species), or they died off from either primary or secondary effects of a truly dramatic change in climate after the flood. Furthermore, I insist that it is the Biblical position that dinosaurs and man coexisted for some time.

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Why is it that the Bible reports all of Noah's ancestors as living into the 900s of years?

Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent text: Genesis 5:1-32

The answer to this question lies in many hours of experimental research carried out by many scientists whose work is devoted to showing that evidence in the fossil record and elsewhere is consistent with the first chapters of Genesis. The present "Creation Model" can explain the long life spans recorded through phenomena associated with radiation and the earth's magnetic field.

According to the Creation model, the "firmament" created on the second day consisted of a large volume of water as well as multiple, very thin layers of a particular metal. (*) This would have done two things of significance to the question. First, it would have absorbed essentially all ultra-violet light, a known carcinogen, keeping it from reaching the surface, and thus greatly reducing the occurences of genetic deviance in cells worldwide. Second, it would have stored the energy gained by absorption back into the earth's magnetic field, which is now decreasing slowly in magnitude, constantly replenishing it.

It has been observed (not merely in the creationist circles) that in order for optimal intercellular communication to occur, a magnetic field must be present. (**) If this magnetic field is not present, communication is inhibited, which would have an effect on longevity.

When the lifespans of people living in different time periods after the flood are considered, it makes sense to say that as the magnetic field began to shrink in magnitude, human life spans began to slowly taper off. Noah lived 19 years less than his grandfather Methuselah (Gen 9:28-29); his son Shem lived to be 600 years old (Gen 11:10-11). Arphaxad, Shem's son, lived a total of 438 years (Gen 11:12-13); his great-grandson Peleg lived 239 years (Gen 11:18-19). Abraham, great x 8 grandson of Noah, lived to be 175 years old (Gen 25:7), Isaac his son outliving him to a ripe 180 years (Gen 35:28). A steady, but slow, decline in longevity is observed following the flood and the changes in climate the accompanied it.

We see then that the Creation model adequately explains the longevity of the first people.

* -- Attributing this structure with the firmament is consistent with Genesis 1:6-7 (the Hebrew word translated "firmament" literally means "crystal") and Genesis 7:11. The firmament would have collapsed during the worldwide flood, being the source of the water from "the windows of heaven" (Gen 7:11, KJV).

** -- While strong magnetic fields can be dangerous for people, a field like that of the earth is beneficial.

*** -- Just a fun factoid: if you do the math, you will discover that the year in which Methuselah died is the exact same year as the flood. Could it be that Methuselah did not die of old age?? (Lamech, Noah's father and the son of Methuselah, died five years before the flood)

Sources consulted:
Copeland, Kenneth & Dr. Carl Baugh. Understanding Creation. This is a video made from several weeks' broadcasts of Copeland's TV show. (sorry, I don't remember any other bibliographical info for this video. I'll ask the guy I borrowed it from and update the page)

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Couldn't the flood have been local instead of global?

Response by: Will Berry

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 6:12-13

Pertinent text #2: Genesis 7:4

Pertinent text #3: Genesis 7:17-24

It is thought by some that the great flood of Genesis was only a severe flood within a certain (fairly large) locality. Those who think of it this way usually admit that the flood was extraordinary, but unwaveringly hold that a global flood could not have happened. One motive for believing this way is an effort to explain all the miracles of the Bible naturalistically without denying the truth of the scriptures. Another motive for holding this position is theistic evolution (or progressive creation); theistic evolutionists would never sponsor an idea, such as a worldwide flood, that would contradict the uniformitarian principles that evolution is based on. (*)

My response to this question is limited to the scope of Biblical consistency; that is, this response is only concerned with the question of whether it is Biblical to say that the flood was local instead of global. Keeping this in mind, the only way for the flood to be local and for the Bible to still be true would be if the flood account was limited to Noah's perspective of the events in question. That is, the written account would have to mean that all the high hills in Noah's locality were covered by fifteen cubits (thirty-something feet) of water, that all the land creatures in some region of the earth were destroyed, etc.

I have two objections to these implications of a local flood. First, I must ask why such a large ark was necessary if only a portion of the earth was flooded. The dimensions of that boat are quite large, and the ark had three levels! It is my unverified opinion that there are not as many species indigenous to the middle east as would require such a large ark. If my opinion is consistent with the truth of the matter, then a global flood would be implied by the scriptures in the size of the ark itself.

Second, I object to the supposition that the flood account was written entirely from Noah's perspective. I refer you back to Genesis 6:13 and 7:4 above, in which it is God who tells Noah that "every living substance ... will I destroy." Certainly, God's perspective on things is not limited to a region on the earth; God's perspective is more than global. So then, the fact that God specifies that all land creatures will be destroyed implies that the flood was indeed global according to the scriptures.

For these reasons, let it be concluded that according to the Bible, there was a global flood which killed all land-based life except for the people and animals on board the ark.

* -- Uniformitarianism is an axiomatic method of interpreting experimental and geologic evidence in such a way that is built on two premises:

The idea of a global flood violates the second premise; other descriptions of our planet's climate before the flood violate the first premise (ex: according to Genesis 2:5-6 the flood was the very first rainfall).

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Wouldn't it have been impossible to bring some of the larger animals onto the ark?


Response by:
Will Berry

Pertinent text: Genesis 7:2-5

It is very true that many full-grown adult creatures may not have been able to board the ark. An obvious example is the giraffe; less obvious examples are Diplodicus, Tyrannosaurus Rex, and Baluchitherium. However, the large size of the adults does not matter. It would make much more sense in terms of food supply and "kennel" space to bring young onto the ark instead of adults. And so my answer to the question is that the needed space was drastically reduced by bringing young aboard rather than adults.

I have but one noted exception: the elephant. Young elephants would have a much smaller chance of surviving without their mothers. It would be possible to survive, seeing as there were people to receive food from, but the chance of surviving in the wild after the flood would be low. So I make an exception for the elephant.

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Regarding the flood, where did the water come from? Where did it go?

Response by: Will Berry

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 2:4-6

Pertinent text #2: Genesis 7 (parts)

Pertinent text #3: Genesis 8 (parts)

First, I would like the reader to consider the first quoted text. It states that originally (before the flood) there was no such thing as rain; the first rainfall was the Great Flood according to the Bible. Afterwards, the water cycle presumably changed to reflect that of the present day (as there is no other event described in the Bible that would account for this change).

Also consider the fact that the Bible says that living things on land received water by way of a "mist" that rose up from the ground. We are to infer from that that the ground was completely saturated with water from the beginning. Thus, we are led by the Bible to suspect a radically different water cycle existed before the flood, a water cycle which underwent dramatic changes during and after the flood.

The Creation Model describes the flood in this manner (my description of it is overly simplified, the actual model incorporates such things as air pressure and oxygen content of the air): the "fountains of the deep" spoken of in the Bible represent an extremely large volume of subterranian water, kept at high temperature and pressure at the base of the crust in compartments just above the hot mantle. This would serve as a way to uniformly circulate a cave-based water cycle closer to the surface (i.e. the cave system of the continents served as the earth's plumbing).

When the "fountains of the deep" were opened, this indicates a breakage of the earth's crust in a longitudinal circle around the entire planet, along what is now the quite noticable mid-Atlantic and mid-Pacific lines. The "windows of heaven" would correspond to the 'firmament' of Genesis 1, which many take to mean simply the blue of the sky, but which is described in the Creation Model as a great canopy of water vapor which served many functions (such as blockage of UV radiation from the sun and "recycling" of the now exponentially decaying magnetic field). The "windows of heaven" opening correspond to the collapse and end of this canopy. (perhaps explaining why the only day of the creation that God did not say that "it was good" was the day He created the firmament).

The Creation Model explains the recession of the waters with a traditional conservation of mass. Creation scientists do not claim (although I will not deny the possibility that this was supernaturally done) that the total mass of water on and near the earth has ever significantly varied. What the Creation Model says about it is that originally, there was not as much water in the seas as there is in the present. Also, the landscape of the earth was greatly altered by the flood, indeed generating a "new world", presumably with higher mountains and deeper sea floors.

(If you take a look at a topographical globe or world map, you will notice that every 90 longitudinal degrees you find a rise or high mountain range proceeding almost pole-to-pole. The Ural mountains proceeding to the Himalayas and the islands of Indonesia and down toward Sydney form a rise, and on the other side of the globe we find the Rockies, Central America, and the Andes. Ninety degrees away in both directions we find the mid-Atlantic rise with the Canary islands and the mid-Pacific range with the Hawaiian islands and Easter Island. It's quite fascinating.)

In short, the Creation Model says that much of the water from the flood evaporated into the air, which is why we have rain today and not before, the caves hollowed out somewhat, leaving the present-day water table and our river system, the seas grew dramatically in volume, and the polar ice caps formed, bringing the water level down somewhat.

(Large amounts of runoff from the continents and a worldwide flood account for marine fossils in Utah, the Grand Canyon, the Badlands of South Dakota, Devil's Tower in Wyoming, petrified wood and other natural marvels of our country. The structure of the water cycle before the flood explains rich fossil beds in the Gobi desert, where life has been scarce ever since the flood.

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Who are the "sons of God" told of in the first part of Genesis 6?

Response by: Will Berry

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 6:1-2

Pertinent text #2: Job 38:4-7

Pertinent text #3: Jude 6

Ideas about the identity of the 'sons of God' are, it would seem, a dime a dozen. At one time I took "sons of God" to mean those who have a "Spirit of adoption" as in Romans 8:14-15. If that were true, then the great wrath of God kindled by the actions of his 'sons' would be well explained.

There are quite a few people out there who are convinced that these mysterious "sons of God" are an alien extra-terrestrial race of beings. There is, however, absolutely zero Biblical or other evidence to support this; if one believes this, he does so simply out of fancy and in the face of rather convincing Biblical evidence which denies such an idea.

I have reached the conclusion, after reading Genesis 6:2, Job 1:6, Job 2:1, Job 38:7, II Peter 2:4, and Jude 6, that the "sons of God" are in fact the angelic host. Revelation 12:4-9 suggests that fully one third of all the angelic host chose to leave Heaven and the worship of God. This must have happened before the temptation of Eve in the garden (Genesis 3:1-2), because Satan had already begun his evil mission by that time.

We know from Job 38:7 that the "sons of God" were around at the beginning of time, when God "laid the foundations of the earth." This seems to eliminate all beings except the angels.

How is it possible for angels, who are spirits, to take women as wives and have children by them? (Gen 6:4) My answer is that this phenomenon would be very similar in nature to the conception of Jesus, Mary's child, by the Holy Spirit, and that the angels can appear in physical manifestations. I once read a book by Rebecca Brown, M.D. entitled "He Came to Set the Captives Free", which was co-authored by a woman who once carried the title of Regional Bride of Satan (she was part of a Satanic society called The Brotherhood). This woman claimed that the title was quite literal, and that Satan would periodically appear in physical form and have brutal intercourse with her. Her story is very consistent with the descriptions of the "sons of God" in the scriptures, and I have no good reasons to doubt her.

Let it be concluded, then, that the best explanation of the identity of the "sons of God" in the Old Testament is that they are the host of angels, and the component of the host who married women and had children by them were the host of demons.

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Who was Cain's wife? Where did she come from?

Response by: Will Berry

Pertinent text #1: Genesis 4:16-17

Pertinent text #2: Genesis 5:3-5

It is my conviction that either Cain or Seth or one of their other brothers married a sister. Assume, for the purpose of the argument, that Adam and Eve were the first two people on the earth, and the only two people at the time of their creation. Also assume, for the purposes of the argument, that all people are descended from Adam and Eve. We will see that to begin with these premises does not give rise to contradiction, and thus establish the believability of what I take to be the simplest explanation for Cain's wife.

We are told the names of three of Adam and Eve's sons: Cain, Abel, and Seth. Of those, two (Cain and Seth) are said to have had wives. And so, for all people to be descended from Adam and Eve, either Cain married a sister and Seth married a niece, Seth married a sister and Cain married a niece, or both married sisters, or at least one of their unnamed brothers married a sister. This in itself does not present a problem, because we know from Genesis 5:4 that Cain and Seth had at least two sisters and at least two brothers other than Abel who was slain.

There are two objections that frequently come to mind when we consider this scenario. The first is the issue of incest. Incest was forbidden in Moses' law, even in the case of first cousins being married. Thus, such obvious inbreeding would be against the law that God gave Moses. The second is the issue of chronology. One might gather from the fact that Seth's birth is told of in the writing after Cain's great great great grandson Lamech is mentioned, and from the fact that the writing seems to suggest that Adam's daughters were born after Seth, that there were no female children of Adam around when Cain's son Enoch was born. Both of these issues lead many to think that there were other people not descended from Adam and Eve present on the earth.

My answer to the first difficulty is the example of the dog. Many modern breeds of dog (the Great Dane, the Irish Wolfhound, etc.) were bred by way of considerable inbreeding. However, most Great Danes today are quite healthy dogs; our family owns two and can vouch for their stamina. While I am not comparing people to dogs in the strictest sense, genetics works much the same way between the two species. Relationships which we call incestuous today would not necessarily give rise to a doomed gene pool.

Moreover, Moses' law was given to Moses, not to Adam and Eve, not to Cain and Seth. Moses' law was given to people through Moses in order to show all the world that they were guilty before God (Rom. 3:19), and incest is forbidden in it for the same reasons that eating pork was forbidden. One of those reasons is to protect the physical health of the people; another is to set a standard against sexual abuse and a general disrespect for a marriage covenant in a family.

This response is not as much a plea of "ex post facto" as it is an observation that if there is an omniscient Creator of the world's people who commanded the first people to "multiply" (Genesis 1:28), then the consent of that Creator for their first-generation descendants to intermarry is implied.

My answer to the second difficulty is threefold. First, Adam gave his wife her name, Eve, because "she was the mother of all living" (Gen 3:20). This does not mean that every living organism on the earth is descended from Eve; it means that all people are descended from Eve (with the obvious exception, of course, of Adam and Eve themselves).

Second, it is not implied by the order in which the genealogies of Cain and of Adam are presented that the order in which people are mentioned parallels the chronology of their births. Both Cain and Seth had descendants named Enoch and Lamech. It may very well be that the author thought it less confusing to separate the genealogies of Cain and Seth. Nor, for that matter, is it implied that Adam's first daughter was born after Cain's son Enoch. (This becomes more evident when one considers the fact that the second chapter of Genesis as a whole is not presented in chronological order.)

Third, I would remind the reader of the simple fact that even if there were other people around, they remain in a strict sense unmentioned. It is as if someone claimed that there were extremely intelligent aliens waiting to attack us on the dark side of the moon, and that they hide whenever we send probes or manned craft to look. The prescence of other people is implied only if the Biblical account is assumed or known to be true and it is impossible for the account to be true otherwise. The second of those conditions, by my above arguments, has not been fulfilled.

In summary, it is adequate to say that of Cain, Seth, and their brothers, at least one married his sister. Of course, the fact that this explanation is consistent does not prove that the argument is true; it does, however, show that there is nothing ridiculous about all people being descended from an original patriarch and matriarch. Furthermore, I have given the reader fairly good objections to some popular alternative ideas as food for thought.

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Last modified: May 26, 1998